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purushasuktam - varna

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.. I thought the high standards expected of brahmins will be evident here,

Dear sangom, this is probably your biggest mistake, expecting high standards from us :), just kidding!!!!

In my experience, educated and well-to-do TBs are among the most self-assured in the inerrancy of their own opinions and are the most disdainful of the opinions of others. This disdain is often so acute that even when there is substantial agreement they look for the minor areas of disagreement to put the other person down.

Needless to say, those who post in this forum are excluded :)!

With some thick skin and a little self-deprecation there is hours and hours of fun filled wasting of time waiting to be had in this forum.

Cheers!
 
Shri Sangom @ Sankar,

With due respect to you, am sorry i did think you are an old poster posing as a new one.

I do understand that my presence here is troublesome to the orthodoxy and the right wing ones and some particular ones. Plus, though some posters say moderates shd remain, their posts belie that.

You mentioned that there are many members with closed minds who cannot be polite in expressing their differences - so i wonder why you chose to express your displeasure wrt to just my post.

Consider you and me as friends of the same age group chattering away, wud you have read my post above as rude or impolite. I apologise bcoz i really did not mean to be rude. I thot it was just a non-chalant conversation.

But yes, if you take the age diff into consideration, it does sound rude for an elderly person. I just now read in one of your posts that you are 70 years old. Considering that, i do apologise again.

Regards.


Shri Kunjuppu ji,

After going thru some of those cattle raids, petty socio-cultural differences, power struggle, etc leading to fights and wars in "vedic india", it seems pretty much common for folk across all strata to have behaved like fishmongers....i suppose it just continues, in a diff setting...
 
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Dear HH, nara, Kunjuppu,

Let us forget the small incident and continue to be "Happy Hindus" here.

Thank you all,

Regards,
 
Shri Kunjuppu ji,

After going thru some of those cattle raids, petty socio-cultural differences, power struggle, etc leading to fights and wars in "vedic india", it seems pretty much common for folk across all strata to have behaved like fishmongers....i suppose it just continues, in a diff setting...

.. and we are all the better for it happy. for the traditionalist, they should be happy because we are carrying out the tradition.

for the reformists, they are happy too, because we are using an ancient method to bring reforms.

for the side standers, hopefully they get some enlightenment along with the tamasha.

:)
 
Dear HH, nara, Kunjuppu,

Let us forget the small incident and continue to be "Happy Hindus" here.

Thank you all,

Regards,

sorry sangom,

i cannot be a happy hindu here. first and foremost, it is the intellectual level and erudition. happy is floating up there on the top, with the creams, bubbling with a deep sense of love for hinduism, and on many an occassion the sole white knight(ess) of enlightenment in the face of reaction and prejudice.

in many an instance, i see in happy, the future face of hinduism - casteless, less focus on ritual and more on the intellect and above all, a strong belief in the vasudeva kutumbam.

i, sir, am at the bottom level of sludge. i look up to the learnings of happy hindu, nara and possibly yourself if you wish to be more prolific here.

hope this explains.
 
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Shri Sangom,

Thankyou sir.

I read my post to atheist in an other thread and i do realise how sorely my written expression is lacking...i lack time and tend to write before i think...i owe an apology to atheist as well.

Shri Kunjuppu ji,

Am not deserving of your praise. I do have a personal motivation to see everyone having a healthy sense of belonging to hinduism. Man will always remain divided on account of socio economic factors such as monetary status, etc. We certainly do not need religion to divide us. Hope caste system never figures in any improper violent ideology that pits brother against brother ever again....so you see, my views may be coloured by my particular vision, am no historian and i may get several things wrong...

Regards.
 
Dear HH,

There were some points which you wanted me to clarify.

"If old folk have accepted such an interpretation, then Sri Kameswara Aiyar should have also written that the following gothras are Shudras:

1) Gothras of Kanva, Vatsa (a descendant of Kanva as per rigved 6.1; 8.8 who was called shudra-putra in panchavimsha brahman 14.6.6 of samaveda)."

Since Sri Kameswara Aiyar was dealing only with Purusha Suktam and its meaning and not about all its consequences, especially, not at all with Rishis and Gotras, it was natural that the said book did not cover the point raised by you.

Lifco book "rishikaLum gOtRankaLum" published in 1974 with the blessings of many Acharyas including the Paramacharya of Kanchi, Ahobila matam etc., states that the original gOtRa Rishis were 8 in number as under:-
1.jamadagni, 2.bharadvAja, 3.gautama, 4.kASyapa, 5.vasishTa, 6. agastya, 7.atri and 8.agastya.
In addition to these, ten Rishis who were kshatriyas and became brAhmaNas subsequently, also became gOtRa Rishis. These are vaitahavya, mitRayuva, Sunaka, yavana, ratheedhara, mudgala, vishNuvRiddha,harita, kaNva and sankRiti. The first four of these belonged to mareechi's family line and the rest to that of atri while they were kshtriyas, but after becoming brAhmaNas, they embraced the gOtRas of bhrigu and angiras respectively. This should be sufficient to show that our ancestors need not have been descendants of the gOtRa Rishis but might have opted for a particular gOtRa when they were absorbed into the brahmin category in the historical past.

kaNva gOtRa itself has two types of pRavara; 1)Angirasa, A(sA)maheeyava, Aurukshaya- for matsya sUtRa people, and 2)Angirasa,AjameeDa,KANva- for bOdhAyana, kAtyAyana and LaugAkshi sUtRa people. In addition there is one kANva gOtRa with the pRavara- vAsishTa, aindrapRamada, Abharadhvasavya (matsya sUtRa). So, we find that kaNva is different from kANva. The word kANva applies to the family/descendants of kaNva and also to a royal dynasty of yore. Interestingly kaNva is also the name of a group of evil spirits as per athaRva vEda ii-25 and their destruction is termed kaNvajambhana in that vEda. I do not have a copy of the panchavimSati brAhmaNa and so I am not able to verify whether it refers to kaNva or kANva. If you have, please send me the particular sUkta or portion which you refer to.

Even if the reference therein is to kaNva and not kANva, there are minimum two kaNVas in our purANas. one is the kASyapa descendant kaNva who himself is referred to as kASyapa at times and the second kaNva is a king of the puru dynasty, son of pRatiratha and paternal cousin of santurOdhan, father of dushanta (agni purANa). [dushanta's "onnu viTTu" uncle was kaNva and his father-in law's name also was kaNva.] However, the bhAgavata purANa says, Adiparva-94-33, that dushanta's parents were eeLin and rathantari.

The above explanation may be sufficient to show that we cannot take any of the statements in our ancient texts at face value and that will apply, I think, for the kaNva or kANva reference in the panchavimSa brAhmaNa also. Most probably that reference should be to a king (or kings) of kANva dynasty and I make this surmise based on some of the observations contained in "Political History of Ancient India" by Hemchandra Raychaudhuri, M.A., Ph.D., and published by the University of Calcutta in 1923.
 
in many an instance, i see in happy, the future face of hinduism - casteless, less focus on ritual and more on the intellect and above all, a strong belief in the vasudeva kutumbam.

Are the above conditions mutually exclusive? I am trying to apply the above to myself.

1. I am proud to be a brahmin but does that mean I practice discrimination against NB?
2. I am kind of ritualistic but does that mean I am low on intellect?
3. I strongly believe in vasudeva kutumbakam but then if I am proud to be a brahmin, a ritualistic possibly low on intellect then how can I believe in VK.

I am confused now?
 
Are the above conditions mutually exclusive? I am trying to apply the above to myself.

1. I am proud to be a brahmin but does that mean I practice discrimination against NB?
2. I am kind of ritualistic but does that mean I am low on intellect?
3. I strongly believe in vasudeva kutumbakam but then if I am proud to be a brahmin, a ritualistic possibly low on intellect then how can I believe in VK.

I am confused now?

oh sir,

how could you be confused. you are just toying with me :)

you are all the 3 of above, and a great hindu.

i see the future as casteless, less ritualistic and worldwide. both can co-exist. :)
 
oh sir,

how could you be confused. you are just toying with me :)

you are all the 3 of above, and a great hindu.

i see the future as casteless, less ritualistic and worldwide. both can co-exist. :)

Shri. Kunjippu, Thanks for the compliment. Slightly deviating from yours, I welcome a caste-less, more ritualistic and VK attitude.
 
Shri. Kunjippu, Thanks for the compliment. Slightly deviating from yours, I welcome a caste-less, more ritualistic and VK attitude.

anand,

i would like to point you out as an exemplary advocate of many traditional views, but who can, willing, able to, (would like?) to co-exist with ragamuffins like me in this forum.

maybe those disgruntled folks in the godmen forum can take a leaf from folks like you. :)

thanks.
 
anand,

i would like to point you out as an exemplary advocate of many traditional views, but who can, willing, able to, (would like?) to co-exist with ragamuffins like me in this forum.

maybe those disgruntled folks in the godmen forum can take a leaf from folks like you. :)

thanks.

Sir. the admiration is mutual. I view this forum more like a debate where before or after the debate there are no hard feelings at all. Since we are all human there could be a chance for frayed tempers during the debate but I think even then the key is the language we use and on that I salute both you and Shri. Nara. I admire your posts as they draw a lot from life experiences and Shri. Nara for the guts he displays in taking on more than one adversary (most often) at the same time and still not losing his cool.

thanks.
 
aha enna anandam,mutual admiration society vaazhgha in the forum.but some curse is there in the forum all purushees are resigning the forum,wonder why purushas are allowing it,maybe the sooktham sucks:sad:
 
Gothras of Kanva, Vatsa (a descendant of Kanva as per rigved 6.1; 8.8 who was called shudra-putra in panchavimsha brahman 14.6.6 of samaveda)."

Since Sri Kameswara Aiyar was dealing only with Purusha Suktam and its meaning and not about all its consequences, especially, not at all with Rishis and Gotras, it was natural that the said book did not cover the point raised by you.

Lifco book "rishikaLum gOtRankaLum" published in 1974 with the blessings of many Acharyas including the Paramacharya of Kanchi, Ahobila matam etc., states that the original gOtRa Rishis were 8 in number as under:-
1.jamadagni, 2.bharadvAja, 3.gautama, 4.kASyapa, 5.vasishTa, 6. agastya, 7.atri and 8.agastya.
In addition to these, ten Rishis who were kshatriyas and became brAhmaNas subsequently, also became gOtRa Rishis. These are vaitahavya, mitRayuva, Sunaka, yavana, ratheedhara, mudgala, vishNuvRiddha,harita, kaNva and sankRiti. The first four of these belonged to mareechi's family line and the rest to that of atri while they were kshtriyas, but after becoming brAhmaNas, they embraced the gOtRas of bhrigu and angiras respectively. This should be sufficient to show that our ancestors need not have been descendants of the gOtRa Rishis but might have opted for a particular gOtRa when they were absorbed into the brahmin category in the historical past.

kaNva gOtRa itself has two types of pRavara; 1)Angirasa, A(sA)maheeyava, Aurukshaya- for matsya sUtRa people, and 2)Angirasa,AjameeDa,KANva- for bOdhAyana, kAtyAyana and LaugAkshi sUtRa people. In addition there is one kANva gOtRa with the pRavara- vAsishTa, aindrapRamada, Abharadhvasavya (matsya sUtRa). So, we find that kaNva is different from kANva. The word kANva applies to the family/descendants of kaNva and also to a royal dynasty of yore. Interestingly kaNva is also the name of a group of evil spirits as per athaRva vEda ii-25 and their destruction is termed kaNvajambhana in that vEda. I do not have a copy of the panchavimSati brAhmaNa and so I am not able to verify whether it refers to kaNva or kANva. If you have, please send me the particular sUkta or portion which you refer to.

Even if the reference therein is to kaNva and not kANva, there are minimum two kaNVas in our purANas. one is the kASyapa descendant kaNva who himself is referred to as kASyapa at times and the second kaNva is a king of the puru dynasty, son of pRatiratha and paternal cousin of santurOdhan, father of dushanta (agni purANa). [dushanta's "onnu viTTu" uncle was kaNva and his father-in law's name also was kaNva.] However, the bhAgavata purANa says, Adiparva-94-33, that dushanta's parents were eeLin and rathantari.

The above explanation may be sufficient to show that we cannot take any of the statements in our ancient texts at face value and that will apply, I think, for the kaNva or kANva reference in the panchavimSa brAhmaNa also. Most probably that reference should be to a king (or kings) of kANva dynasty and I make this surmise based on some of the observations contained in "Political History of Ancient India" by Hemchandra Raychaudhuri, M.A., Ph.D., and published by the University of Calcutta in 1923.
Dear Shri Sangom,

Thank you for the post.

From the Mahabharat, we know that Kanva did not marry, have children but had adopted / raised Shakuntala as a daughter.

But we find (another?) Kanva in the Rigveda. So I had also thot that possibly there was more than one Kanva. Thank you for clarifying.

Regarding the portion I refer to, this is about Vatsa mentioned as Kanva’s son in Rigveda, book 8, Hymns to the Ashvins
The Rig Veda in Sanskrit: Rig Veda Book 8: Hymn 8 (translation: Rig Veda: Rig-Veda, Book 8: HYMN VIII. Aśvins. )

किमन्ये पर्यासते.अस्मत सतोमेभिरश्विना |
पुत्रः कण्वस्य वां रषिर्गीर्भिर्वत्सो अवीव्र्धत ||
Do others more than we adore the Aśvins with their hymns of praise? The Ṛṣi Vatsa, Kaṇva's son, hath magnified you with his songs.

In the Sama Veda’s Tandya Mahabrahman / Panchavimsha brahman 14.6.6 Vatsa has been mentioned as Kanva’s son and addressed to as a “shudra-putra” (available here: Pancavimsabrahmana )

(PB 14.6.6) vatsaś ca vai medhātithiś ca kāṇvāv āstāṃ taṃ vatsaṃ medhātithir ākrośad abrāhmaṇo 'si śūdrāputra iti so 'bravīd ṛtenāgniṃ vyayāva yataro nau brahmīyān iti vātsena vatso vyain maidhātithena medhātithis tasya na loma ca nauṣat tad vāva sa tarhy akāmayata kāmasani sāma vātsaṃ kāmam evaitenāvarundhe |

I know a lot has been made out of this ‘Aryan looks’ by the colonialists, but just for the records, I found this interesting as well: Kanva mentioned as Nirshad’s son

उत कण्वं नर्षदः पुत्रमाहुरुत शयावो धनमादत्तवाजि |
पर कर्ष्णाय रुशदपिन्वतोधरतमत्र नकिरस्मा अपीपेत ||
Its meaning is given as:
To Nṛṣad's son they gave the name of Kainva, and he the brown-hued courser won the treasure. For him dark-coloured streamed the shining udder: none made it swell for him. Thus Order willed it.

However this interpretation is also taken to mean that Kanva was dark-skinned by some, including the writer here: Hindu Wisdom (the writer there has also given a very good explanation on purusha suktam. It is contradictory to Sri Kameswara Aiyar’s explanation).

So could it mean that Vatas was Kanva' son and a shudra-putra?

In the book, Class and Religion in Ancient India, By Jayantanuja Bandyopadhyaya (available on google books online), I was reading about the ‘fear of shudra ascendency’. The book also calls the Yadus as mlecchas....

I always wondered what was the need to “fear” the shudras. I felt that an explanation based on regionalism might apply. It does fit the puranic explanation some give that there are no kshatriyas in kaliyuga. From the Nanda dynasty onwards, the Shrimad Bhagvatham quotes that Shudras become kings. It also calls Yadus, Pulindas and Madrakas as low-class men: Srimad Bhagavatam Canto 12 Chapter 1 Verse 34

This is another translation: [ Srimad-Bhagavatam ]

SB 12.1.34
There will then appear a king of the Magadhas named Visvasphurji, who will be like another Puranjaya. He will turn all the civilized classes into low-class, uncivilized men in the same category as the Pulindas, Yadus and Madrakas.

Will continue on this…please let me know your views on this..

Regards.
 
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Are the above conditions mutually exclusive? I am trying to apply the above to myself.

1. I am proud to be a brahmin but does that mean I practice discrimination against NB?
2. I am kind of ritualistic but does that mean I am low on intellect?
3. I strongly believe in vasudeva kutumbakam but then if I am proud to be a brahmin, a ritualistic possibly low on intellect then how can I believe in VK.

I am confused now?

LOL...Anand, that was too good.....you know anand why i like you, you are one sweet guy, no double-speak, always-always polite, always straightforward...hope i can be like you..and i'll try explaining..

1. No sir, its obvious you don't do any discrimination...barring a few outliers, everyone is like you generally in life...

2. Ritualism is an important aspect of the hindu life. In today's life i think it makes one more organized wrt to time management. Am not sure if it can be compared to intellect, since the non-ritual chinese and westerners seem to do a lot better than indians...Its just that i follow a yoga path, and somehow lean towards the non-ritual side...but i too pray as often as i can, just that sometimes i say shlokas in my mind stitting on the sofa..

3. You verily are Vasudeva's Kutumbham..

Regards.
 
Dear Shri Sangom,

Thank you for the post.
......

This is another translation: [ Srimad-Bhagavatam ]

SB 12.1.34
There will then appear a king of the Magadhas named Visvasphurji, who will be like another Puranjaya. He will turn all the civilized classes into low-class, uncivilized men in the same category as the Pulindas, Yadus and Madrakas.

Will continue on this…please let me know your views on this..

Regards.

Dear HH,

IMO, the meaning of the stanza 14.6.6 of pancavimSa brAhmaNa should be something like the following:-

vatsaSca vai mEdhAtithiSca kANvAvAstAm=vatsa and mEdhAtithi were kaNva's sons. (kaNva had two sons vatsa and mEdhAtithi.)

tam vatsam mEdhAtithir AkrOSad abrAhmaNo/si-SUdraputra -iti= mEdhAtithi scolded that vatsa (saying) that (you) are abrAhmaNa - SUdraputra

sO/braveedR^tEnAgnim vyayAva= saying (this) he right away extinguished the fire

yatarO nau=which one of us

brahmeeyAn=will act as the priest (brahman priest in the yajna)

...avarundhE=obstructed

My knowledge of Sanskrit is not adequate to decipher the remaining portion which is more archaic and so difficult. Scholars who are members of this forum kindly help.

Anyway, this stanza only narrates a quarrel between the brothers mEdhAtithi and vatsa, in which the former rebukes the latter saying, "You are abrAhmana, SUdraputra". ("Chootrappaya mavane", a la Vadivelu, shall we say!). It does not warrant, by itself, the conclusion that vatsa kANva 'was' SUdraputRa. Usually our scriptures make up a story to the effect that because mEdhAtithi uttered so, vatsa became a SUdra etc. I checked the rest of the PVB but did not find any subsequent reference to vatsa at all. So, it is safe to assume that this vatsa kANva escaped unhurt (!) and lived his life as a brAhmaNa.

Now we come to RV X.31.11. The book that I have shows the Rik as under:-

uta kaNvanR^shadaH putRam AhuH
uta SyAvO dhanam Adatta vAjee |
pRa kR^shNAya ruSad apinvatOdhaH
R^tam atRa nakiH asmA apeepEt ||

Perhaps due to the limitations of Google transliteration, there is some difference from what you give.
You have given the meaning from Griffith's translation but this is not considered as good by scholars now.
The meaning given in my Malayalam book (based on Sayana's bhashya) is as follows:

uta kaNvam nR^ sadaH putRam AhuH = (vEdavAdinO vadanti uta kaNvam nR^ sadaH) The vEdavAdins say that kaNva is the son of nR^shad.

uta vAjee SyAvaH = (api ca havirannavAn SyAmavaRNassaH asmAdagnEssakASAt) He who was dark in complexion and like havis, from agni

dhanam Adatta = (dhanam agR^hNAt) got wealth

kR^shNAya UdhaH = (SyAmavaRNAya nARshadAya kaNvAyAgnErUdhaH) to this dark-coloured kaNva, son of nR^shad, agni gave

ruSal pRa apinvata = (rOchamAnarUpam pRAsinchat) his own brilliant rUpam [here, colour]

atRa = (ittham agnivyatiriktaH kacidapidEvaH) Like this no dEva other than agni

asmai R^tam nakiH apeepEt = (kaNvAya yajnAnnAvaRdhayat) has rewarded kaNva's yajna.

The total meaning will be evident from the above. I do not know how Griffith finds 'udder' here. Probably he got a version which said "vAji" instead of "vAjee", or he himself might have misread it. While "vaji" will mean 'courser'=a strong swift horse ridden into battle, it is difficult to imagine a shining udder for it. Secondly there is no equivalent word for it in the Rik. Thirdly a total reading of Griffith's English translation of this Rik does not make sense. If Kainva is the brown-hued courser, who is the dark-coloured who streamed (may be he refers to milking here) the shining udder? udder of which animal? If the udder was streamed why should someone make it swell? Which is the word in this Rik denoting "Order"? I therefore feel Sayana's bhashya is more acceptable till we find a still more appropriate one.

You will thus see that kaNva did not have to suffer dark complexion and agni changed it to His own brilliant hue.

Regarding the caste of the Rigvedic Rishis, please read the book (pp.897-904), "Encyclopedia of Vedic Philosophy" edited by Subodh Kapoor, preview available in google books. For the information of members let me quote one portion here.

"These extracts are enough. They are made from works composed two or three thousand years after the time of the Vedic Rishis, but those extracts enable us to comprehend the status and position of the Vedic religious leaders and warriors....Writing at such long distances of time from the Vedic Age the modern authors often misapprehended ancient facts and traditions....Those traditions pointed to a state of society which had long passed away, and which had become almost unintelligible. Puranic writers could scarcely comprehend that priests and warriors could spring from the same race, that a Rishi could be a warrior, or that a warrior could be a priest. The (sic) tried to explain such traditions by a hundred different theories and legends, but nevertheless they have faithfully and piously handed down the traditions unexchanged and unaltered. Thus, to make only one more extract, the Matsya Purana enumerates 91 Vedic Rishis, and concludes with the following suggestive passage, (section 132):--"Thus 91 persons have been declared, by whom the hymns have been given forth. They were Brahmans, Kashtriyas, and Vaisyas, all sons of Rishis. They were the offspring of the Rishikas, sons of Rishis, Vedic Rishis."

I have somethings more to say about the Vedic Rishis which will follow in another post.

As to your reference to "Sudra bheeti" also I shall write separately.
 
Dear All,

The correct Sloka is "vasudhaiva kuTumbakam" and possibly the oldest usage of this phrase is in Hitopadesa. Vasudeava kutumbam will mean vasudeva family.
 
Dear Shri Sangom,

tam vatsam mEdhAtithir AkrOSad abrAhmaNo/si-SUdraputra -iti= mEdhAtithi scolded that vatsa (saying) that (you) are abrAhmaNa - SUdraputra

... Usually our scriptures make up a story to the effect that because mEdhAtithi uttered so, vatsa became a SUdra etc. I checked the rest of the PVB but did not find any subsequent reference to vatsa at all. So, it is safe to assume that this vatsa kANva escaped unhurt (!) and lived his life as a brAhmaNa.
Thank you for clarifying. There are quite a few websites that mention that Vatsa, a shudra became a brahmin due to this (it is mentioned in hindu wisdom, hvk.org, also discussed in sanghparivar.org, etc). Obviously, they (and i) got it wrong.

I also wud like to clarify from you, wud you think that all the Kanvas (including the warrior ones) belong to the same clan (just like all the Apasthambas belonged to the sameclan) ?

Reg the archaic part (the undecipherable portion of the rest of the verse), i suppose it wud be early vedic? Any suggestions as to what time period this wud be?

The prob i suppose is that ppl are trying to reconstruct a past based on available texts which are miniscule (just abt 20), as compared to the thousands of shakhas that got lost .

Now we come to RV X.31.11. The book that I have shows the Rik as under:-

uta kaNvanR^shadaH putRam AhuH
uta SyAvO dhanam Adatta vAjee |
pRa kR^shNAya ruSad apinvatOdhaH
R^tam atRa nakiH asmA apeepEt ||

...
uta kaNvam nR^ sadaH putRam AhuH = (vEdavAdinO vadanti uta kaNvam nR^ sadaH) The vEdavAdins say that kaNva is the son of nR^shad.

uta vAjee SyAvaH = (api ca havirannavAn SyAmavaRNassaH asmAdagnEssakASAt) He who was dark in complexion and like havis, from agni

dhanam Adatta = (dhanam agR^hNAt) got wealth

kR^shNAya UdhaH = (SyAmavaRNAya nARshadAya kaNvAyAgnErUdhaH) to this dark-coloured kaNva, son of nR^shad, agni gave

ruSal pRa apinvata = (rOchamAnarUpam pRAsinchat) his own brilliant rUpam [here, colour]

atRa = (ittham agnivyatiriktaH kacidapidEvaH) Like this no dEva other than agni

asmai R^tam nakiH apeepEt = (kaNvAya yajnAnnAvaRdhayat) has rewarded kaNva's yajna.

...

You will thus see that kaNva did not have to suffer dark complexion and agni changed it to His own brilliant hue.

But sir, going by the meaning you gave:

"He who was dark in complexion and like havis, from agni got wealth..

kR^shNAya UdhaH = (SyAmavaRNAya nARshadAya kaNvAyAgnErUdhaH) to this dark-coloured kaNva, son of nR^shad, agni gave his own brilliant rUpam [here, colour]. Like this no dEva other than agni has rewarded kaNva's yajna".

Wudn't this mean that Kanva was actually dark-skinned and Agni gave him his hue? Agni giving him his own brilliant rupam could also mean that agni gave kanva his brilliance or clarity of intellect (tejas) (i mean, not necessarily that agni gave him his complexion).

Also sir, i do not see dark complexion as a suffering...its pretty much celebrated in songs like 'nalladevudu raguramuday'..

Regarding the caste of the Rigvedic Rishis, please read the book (pp.897-904), "Encyclopedia of Vedic Philosophy" edited by Subodh Kapoor, preview available in google books. For the information of members let me quote one portion here.

"These extracts are enough. They are made from works composed two or three thousand years after the time of the Vedic Rishis, but those extracts enable us to comprehend the status and position of the Vedic religious leaders and warriors....Writing at such long distances of time from the Vedic Age the modern authors often misapprehended ancient facts and traditions....Those traditions pointed to a state of society which had long passed away, and which had become almost unintelligible. Puranic writers could scarcely comprehend that priests and warriors could spring from the same race, that a Rishi could be a warrior, or that a warrior could be a priest. The (sic) tried to explain such traditions by a hundred different theories and legends, but nevertheless they have faithfully and piously handed down the traditions unexchanged and unaltered. Thus, to make only one more extract, the Matsya Purana enumerates 91 Vedic Rishis, and concludes with the following suggestive passage, (section 132):--"Thus 91 persons have been declared, by whom the hymns have been given forth. They were Brahmans, Kashtriyas, and Vaisyas, all sons of Rishis. They were the offspring of the Rishikas, sons of Rishis, Vedic Rishis."

Thank you mentioning the book sir. I shall get a copy of it soon to read. Reg the probs faced by puranic writers, it is said that the puranic writers were unconnected to the vedic past. How true wud this be to you?

Actually, am not really comfortable with puranas, since we indians tend to have ballistic imaginations (so how to beleive our people?) ...they are more like fairy tales or fantasy tales with animals that speak, and stories like a diety goes and hides in the clouds, etc.

Plus the contradictions the puranas present are not simple...like the mahabharat extolls the yadus, but the bhagavat purana presents them as low class men. Plus there is no guarantee that men, after coming to power, did not fake their geneology. If shivaji did it in recent times, so cud others have in the ancient past. Who knows really?

If one goes by the puranas, one wud have to believe that a certain brahma lived on earth, and so did sun god, moon god, etc. Some gurus try to explain this as metaphors, yet it does not seem to make sense (to me) esp when the overall story is taken into consideration.

If we need to go by puranas, we also must imagine that there really were fights between shiva, vishnu, devas, asuras (to me devas were as power hungry as asuras but got extolled despite indra's ways)..

Some say by the end of the vedic period, indra (the vedic asura / ahura / wise guy) and his men became weak...and its because of this that the asuras (though a branch of devas themselves) ended up getting painted as demons in the puranas...

Sometimes i wonder wht wud one call a culture that offers fire oblations to the asuras (all the vedic dieties... indra, mitra, varuna). Asuric?

Also, both in the vedas and the puranas, sometimes a person or an event is mentioned just once with no further mention..at other times things are only alluded to and not mentioned straight...sometimes things are metaphorical, etc

To give things a benefit of a doubt, i try to see things this way - just bcoz something or someone is mentioned just once, or not mentioned further on in a text, it wud not mean that some things did happen or did not happen.....

When i see contradictions presented by historians and indologists, sometimes i think its all just viewpoints (based on available info). Perhaps only god knows what really happened...but i do very much enjoy this type of info and banter on geneology stuff...all good fun...

Dear All,

The correct Sloka is "vasudhaiva kuTumbakam" and possibly the oldest usage of this phrase is in Hitopadesa. Vasudeava kutumbam will mean vasudeva family.

Thank you sir. Managed to get this: The first book of the Hitopadesa ; containing the Sanskrit text with interlinear transliteration, grammatical analysis, and English translation : Free Download & Streaming : Internet Archive Will download and read shortly.

I look forward to more from you. Sir, wud you know anything abt the kapisthala katha (i mean, from personal resources like library hunting by friends) ? Apart from invasions, have you come across other reasons why shakhas got lost?

Regards.
 
Dear Sri Sangom,

Pl. try to read carefully what I have written. Of course, the feet of Purusha form part of Its anatomy. But the difference comes when we see that while brahmana was 'aaseet', kshatriya and vaisya were 'kritaha', sudra was 'ajaayata'-born out of. When something is born out of something else the thing which was born separates from the mother entity and does not continue to remain as part of that mother entity. Here brahmana, kshatriya and vaisya are picturised as 'forming' the respective limbs, just like we may say, 'the army, navy and air force form the three wings of our defence force'.

I do not have the book by Sri Kameswara Iyer (KI) with me. This is regarding his explantion of Ajaayata - born out of - or seperating from the mother entity and therefore not remaining a part of the mother entity.

According to the SV interpretation, the verse 16 of the Purusha Suktam (PS) means to say that Shriman Narayana is the creator and maintainer of everything. And truly, a child may be seperated out from the mother at birth - but that does not mean that a mother ceases to share any bond with her child ?

So am curious to know how does KI explain the following:

1) In verse 5, the PS has this verse - tasmAt virAd ajAyata.. which means to say that the universe was born out of the purusha - does that mean the universe after seperating out of the mother entity (here, the purusha), no longer remains a part of the purusha?

2) Verse 10 of PS has this - yajus tasmAd ajAyanta- yajurveda was born from the purusha - do the yajur mantras no longer remain part of the purusha once born?

3) Verse 11 - tasmajjatA ajAvaya: - this is regarding birth of goats and sheep (or animals in general we can say) - they too are no longer part of the purusha once born?

4) Verse 14 -
candramA manaso jAta: | caksho sooryo ajAyata | mukhaadeendrascAgnischa | prANAdvAyurajAyata ||
The moon is born of his mind, sun from his eyes, indra and agni from his mouth and vayu from his breath.

Are we supposed to beleive that the moon, sun, indra, agni, vayu were literally born out of the purusha? If that is so, then the purusha is supposed to have had countless heads, legs, eyes (in verse 1) - wud it not be a metaphor?

Let us say there are countless suns, why doesn't the hymn literally say there are countless moons (of various planets)? And how many indras and agnis were proposed to exist?
Also, does the sun cease to be a part of the purusha, once born - and so does vayu ?

Frits staal points out factual anomalies in the hymn - asking why wud a "dead" or a sacrified (vyadadhu: ) purusha be cut up or divided into different parts of the societ (??).

Since the word Shudra occurs only once in all of the rigveda, Staal (amongst others too) considers the PS to be a later-day addition to the rigveda.

But then as i had mentioned, hope we can give things a benefit of a doubt if they are mentioned just once, or not mentioned further on in a text...irrespective of who has explained the suktam to us...

Am not of opinion that 'Shudra' was a derogatory word before the dharmashastras came into being. It might have simply meant "one who does no rites" (in a socio-religious-cultural context). Shudra could refer to (1) a person named shudra (or sudra), (2) a kingdom, (3) a tribe, and (4) a class. Shudra as a class appears only later.

Not performing rites (or specifically "not performing what-some people-considered-to-be-"proper"-rites-at-that-point-of-time") does not automatically qualify a person to be an enemy / make him derogatory - i think the term shudra was only later converted to mean an enemy or slave. The vedic dasyus too were not slaves to being with.

So i wud not agree if there is derogatory-ness associated with the stand of assuming the Vadivelu kind of "Chootrappaya mavane".

Will post on the shudras soon..meanwhile i hope you wud let me know how KI had explained the others born out of the purusha...
 
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Dear HH,

I also wud like to clarify from you, wud you think that all the kANvas (including the warrior ones) belong to the same clan (just like all the Apasthambas belonged to the same clan) ?
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Your point is not clear to me; are you referring to Rishis who are mentioned in the RigvEda, or to people who follow the same gr^hya sUtRa, like that of Apastamba, because Apastamba/s is/are not RigvEdic Rishi/s? You may well be knowing that people of several gOtRas follow the Apastamba gr^hyasUtRa and they will not be of the same clan.

The Rigvedic anukRamaNi (list if Rishi-cHandas-dEvata) shows that kANvas are the Rishis of 27 hymns (sUkta) of the 1st. maNDala and most of the 8th. maNDala, as under:

I. 12-23 mEdAtithi kANva
I. 44-50 praskANva kANva

In the 8th. maNDala we find the following Rishis from the kANva clan:-

Ayu kANva, SObhari kANva, SaSakarNa kANva, brahmAtithi kANva, dEvAtithibANva, gOSUktin kANva, aSvasUktin kANva,
irimbiTha kANva, kR^Sa kANva , kali PrAgAtha , kurusuti kANva , mAtariSvan kANva , mEdAtithi kANva, mEdhyAtithi kANva,
mEdhya kANva, nAbhAka kANva, nArada kANva, pR^Sadhra kANva, parvata kANva, prAgAtha kANva, praskANva kANva,
punarvatsa kANva, pushTigu kANva, sR^STigu kANva, sadhvamsa kANva, suparNa kANva, triSoka kANva, uSanA KAvya, usIdin kANva,
and, vatsa kANva.

Scholarly opinion is united in stating that all the kANvas should be considered as belonging to one clan. However, we are not sure whether these said Rishis really existed, whether they were the composers of the respective hymns etc., because the anukRamaNi is supposed to have undergone one or two redactions and the list I have given above is from one of the later (if not the latest) versions of the anukRamaNis.
There was a late-vEdic sarvAnukRamaNi of kAtyAyana, it seems, but this has undergone changes in subsequent times and what we easily get hold of is this later one. The SAkalya version of RigvEda is what is available today and some indiscrepancies have been pointed out in the arrangement of the hymns therein in to different maNDalas by Hermann Oldenberg, a famous German Orientalist (1854-1920) and he has prepared what would have been the most authentic arrangement of the hymns and also pointed out those hymns which are interpolations of a much later period. But this rectified copy is not available for public, only for researchers, institutions, etc.

However, there is unanimity in the scholarly circle in holding that all the kAnvas, Angirases, bhAradvAjas etc., denote members of the respective clan. Hence the name "family books" for maNDalas II to VII of the RigvEda.
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Reg the archaic part (the undecipherable portion of the rest of the verse), i suppose it wud be early vedic? Any suggestions as to what time period this wud be?
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Before we consider the age of any of our scriptures, it may be noted that there are two diametrically opposite views in such matters. While our traditional opinion is steadfast in holding that the vEdas are "anAdi", beginningless, with a minor concession given to the pRaLaya at the end of a caturyuga (or after a kalpa, according to some) for the vEdas also to disappear, no one, including our indigenous scholars now contribute to such a view which would mean that even before a nanosecond lapsed after the big bang, the vEdas were born! (We will get a confirmation either way for this after the Large Hadron Collider experiments, perhaps!) There are two hypotheses regarding how the vEdas and the people who composed and/or made first use of them, came to be in India since the vEdas are/were not followed in any other region. The 19th. century foreign scholarship believed that the RigvEdic Aryans, a martial people, invaded India from the North-West and subjugated the local population. This Aryan Invasion Theory (AIT) has been discarded by them, particularly after Hitler's rise to power on the Aryan race agenda. But available evidence, archaeological and linguistic, still weigh more in favour of a western origin for the RigvEdic people. Indian local scholarship, especially after the BJP rule, has taken the exact opposite position and holds that Sanskrit (and the RigvEda) originated in India and all other languages of Europe was on account of the RigvEdic Indians going west (Out of India Theory, or, OIT). In this debate, which is still not settled, I feel that the truth lies closer to an Aryan Migration from the North-West, in which some small skirmishes between the migrant vEdic tribes and the already settled people could have happened. Genetic research (DNA analysis) shows results favouring both sides but, in my view, all the studies so far covered only limited samples and we have to await the results of a comprehensive study covering as large a sample as possible, in order to arrive at any definite conclusions.

As a corollary of the above two opposing views, the AIT group follows a comparatively recent date for the RigvEda since there is no evidence to support the stand that the Indus valley people followed the vEdic religion and worshipped fire; the OIT side tries to prove that our scriptures are from a hoary past and they try to explain away any difficulties, even if such explanations are not convincing to the ordinary reader himself. So, any opinion about how old the PVB or any of our scriptures are, will be hotly contested.

I hold that the Indus Valley Civilization (IVC) was not of the vEdic people and the entry of the vEdic tribes into India must have been after the commencement of the decline of that civilization. Roughly we may take 2000 BC as the period of the earliest portions of the Rigveda, since the mature phase of the IVC is now reckoned at 2600-1900 B.C. based on carbon dating. OIT people argue for a very ancient time, based on some astronomical observations in the RigvEda; B.G. Tilak's book, "The Arctic Home in the Vedas" would show that all these astronomical observations could have been memories of a life lived very near the North Polar regions, carried by a people on their move.

A conservative reckoning would make us allow at least 500 years for the completion of the RigvEda and so the yajuRvEda and sAmavEda might have originated in the period 1500-1000 B.C. The brAhamaNas will be of a later period and pancavimSa is not one of the early brAhmaNas. So, I guess we may take its time to be around 1000 B.C.
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The prob i suppose is that ppl are trying to reconstruct a past based on available texts which are miniscule (just abt 20), as compared to the thousands of shakhas that got lost (The Vedic Shakhas).
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I am not a scholar in such matters but IMO, the SaKhas were not very much different from one another and their loss may not be very relevant to this point. The mention of a very large number of SAkhas may be an exaggeration of a later period also. Since the vEdas were transmitted orally and there was such a wonderful system to prevent any loss or corruption of data, both in regard to the matter and the intonation, if we had the texts of more SAkhas now, they would not have differed much. The real problem is that our forefathers did not give importance to history, till they came to the stage which necessitated purANa-writing and then they started with the most ambitious - history from the very beginning itself! Your points regarding purANas and the imaginary stories they carry will be covered in another post please.
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But sir, going by the meaning you gave:

"He who was dark in complexion and like havis, from agni got wealth..

kR^shNAya UdhaH = (SyAmavaRNAya nARshadAya kaNvAyAgnErUdhaH) _to this dark-coloured kaNva, son of nR^shad,_ agni gave his own brilliant rUpam [here, colour]. Like this no dEva other than agni has rewarded kaNva's yajna".

Wudn't this mean that Kanva was actually dark-skinned and Agni gave him his hue? Agni giving him his own brilliant rupam could also mean that agni gave kanva his brilliance or clarity of intellect (tejas) (i mean, not necessarily that agni gave him his complexion).

Also sir, i do not see dark complexion as a suffering...its pretty much celebrated in songs like 'nalladevudu raguramuday'..
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Yes, your view may also be correct. But I went by the totality of the sense that the Rik gives, not only the mere word meaning. Here is one kaNva, son of nR^shad. It would have been sufficient for the poet to say that this kaNva, s/o nR^shad propitiated agni and got wealth as also the hue of agni. Why is the dark colour referred to twice? Again the words "rOchamAnarUpam pRAsinchat" in the sAyana bhAshya (summarised in my book; if we refer to the original it is likely to be more detailed and informative) could only mean that kaNva was given the shape of the divine person, not intellect. Since this Rik overwhelmingly concerns itself with the dark colour of kaNva, it should necessarily talk of what happened in that matter; otherwise it will look meaningless. For example, suppose we say, X was a midget; he prayed to God and got lot of wealth and great intellect. What is the relevance of mentioning X's midget status here? Will it not, on the contrary, sound as if midgets alone will be able to achieve such things and not others? However, if we say that he prayed to God and got lot of wealth and God also blessed him with a tall body, it makes better sense, does it not?
 
Dear Sri Sangom,



I do not have the book by Sri Kameswara Iyer (KI) with me. This is regarding his explantion of Ajaayata - born out of - or seperating from the mother entity and therefore not remaining a part of the mother entity.

According to the SV interpretation, the verse 16 of the Purusha Suktam (PS) means to say that Shriman Narayana is the creator and maintainer of everything. And truly, a child may be seperated out from the mother at birth - but that does not mean that a mother ceases to share any bond with her child ?

So am curious to know how does KI explain the following:

1) In verse 5, the PS has this verse - tasmAt virAd ajAyata.. which means to say that the universe was born out of the purusha - does that mean the universe after seperating out of the mother entity (here, the purusha), no longer remains a part of the purusha?

2) Verse 10 of PS has this - yajus tasmAd ajAyanta- yajurveda was born from the purusha - do the yajur mantras no longer remain part of the purusha once born?

3) Verse 11 - tasmajjatA ajAvaya: - this is regarding birth of goats and sheep (or animals in general we can say) - they too are no longer part of the purusha once born?

4) Verse 14 -
candramA manaso jAta: | caksho sooryo ajAyata | mukhaadeendrascAgnischa | prANAdvAyurajAyata ||
The moon is born of his mind, sun from his eyes, indra and agni from his mouth and vayu from his breath.

Are we supposed to beleive that the moon, sun, indra, agni, vayu were literally born out of the purusha? If that is so, then the purusha is supposed to have had countless heads, legs, eyes (in verse 1) - wud it not be a metaphor?

Let us say there are countless suns, why doesn't the hymn literally say there are countless moons (of various planets)? And how many indras and agnis were proposed to exist?
Also, does the sun cease to be a part of the purusha, once born - and so does vayu ?

Frits staal points out factual anomalies in the hymn - asking why wud a "dead" or a sacrified (vyadadhu: ) purusha be cut up or divided into different parts of the societ (??).

Since the word Shudra occurs only once in all of the rigveda, Staal (amongst others too) considers the PS to be a later-day addition to the rigveda.

But then as i had mentioned, hope we can give things a benefit of a doubt if they are mentioned just once, or not mentioned further on in a text...irrespective of who has explained the suktam to us...

Am not of opinion that 'Shudra' was a derogatory word before the dharmashastras came into being. It might have simply meant "one who does no rites" (in a socio-religious-cultural context). Shudra could refer to (1) a person named shudra (or sudra), (2) a kingdom, (3) a tribe, and (4) a class. Shudra as a class appears only later.

Not performing rites (or specifically "not performing what-some people-considered-to-be-"proper"-rites-at-that-point-of-time") does not automatically qualify a person to be an enemy / make him derogatory - i think the term shudra was only later converted to mean an enemy or slave. The vedic dasyus too were not slaves to being with.

So i wud not agree if there is derogatory-ness associated with the stand of assuming the Vadivelu kind of "Chootrappaya mavane".

Will post on the shudras soon..meanwhile i hope you wud let me know how KI had explained the others born out of the purusha...

Dear HH,

First of all let me say that my comment a la Vadivelu was given in the context of the PVB passage you were referring to. In my opinion the word "AkRoSad" means scolding and the use of the words, "abrAhmaNOsi-SudraputRa iti-", will mean "you are an abrAhmana, i.e.,SUdraputRa", the explanation 'i.e., SUdraputRa' being added for the reader's clarification by whoever composed/wrote that passage. Now if abrAhmaNa was a rebuke it could have been sufficient to say "-kshatRiyaputRa iti-" or "-vaiSyaputRa iti-"; why was the word "SUdra putRa" chosen for clarification? Because that alone would have been considered as a term of rebuke. I leave to your judgement the question whether such a rebuke will or will not be derogatory. If you think it will not be, then I stand corrected and apologize for dragging in Vadivelu language.

It is correct that the term Sudra appears in RigvEda only once and that too, in PS. It is also the opinion of scholars that this PS is a very late interpolation, perhaps after the caste system and its rigidity had started taking shape in the society. Such an interpolation might have been necessary to silence any dissidence since once something was shown to have the sanction of RigvEda it would be accepted unchallenged since SRuti is inviolable and any one questioning it would have been liable to ostracism and much worse and would have met the same fate as cARvAka.

Since you seem to be harping on how Kameswara Aiyar explained each stanza (probably you doubt what I say) you may download it from:

http://ia311316.us.archive.org/3/items/purushasukta00unkngoog/purushasukta00unkngoog.pdf

and refer to page 59. Pages 12-13,16-17, 62-65 are missing from the book. But from a reading of the whole book, I get a feeling that pages 62-65 might have contained some more arguments in the same vein as in page 56. (But I don't want to argue further on this point.)

Some of your arguments do not seem very logical. Nowhere does the PS say that only one item could come out of one limb of the purusha.

Regarding the actual illogical points in the PS, there are many and I can point out the following as quick examples:

1. If the dEvAs, sAdhyAs and Rishis performed the yajna (tEna dEvA ayajanta sAdhYA RishayaScayE) how come indra, agni, vAyu etc., emanate after the yajna, or, were there other and older dEvas? Who were they?

2. The seasons vasanta, greeshma, Sarad were already there before the yajna (vasantO/syAseedAjyam greeshma idhmaSSaraddhaviH); but the sun and moon come later!

We can go on like this but that would not help in anyway in deciding whether the SUdras were or were not discriminated against at some point of time. Even if there existed such a golden era of equality in the mists of time, it won't help a bit in changing today's situation.

FYI, the Iranian (Zoroastrian) society had a 3-class division of their society, athravan, rathaestar, and vastriyo fsuyant who were the exact counterparts of the Hindu brahmana, kshatriya and vaiSya respectively; these three words have a Sanskrit origin from the roots br^hm, kshatra and viS whereas the word Sudra does not lend itself to such a clear derivation. Therefore, it looks as though the three-classed vEdic people who came to the Punjab, termed the 'other' people whom they encountered, as 'dAsa', 'dasyu', etc., initially and, after passage of time resulted in peaceful living of the two groups, named those fourth class as 'SUdra'.

In my considered view if we try to dissect and analyse PS, or for that matter, any of our scriptural texts it will be end up like peeling the onion; nothing substantial will result. Just as an example, take your question regarding SV interpretation of PS 16; I don't get your doubt. Still, presuming that the 'ajaayata' verb will preclude any bond contrary to that envisaged in SV, does not the PS itself say, "sa bhoomim viSvatO vR^tvA atyatishTad daSangulam"? Again, the origin of the "virAT" was spontaneous and the PS further states, "virAjO adhi pUrushaH | sa jAtO atyaricyata | paScAd bhUmimathO puraH |" If all these could happen without a yajna, why does one become necessary at that point of time? I, therefore, feel that it is time for me to withdraw from this particular topic.
 
We have been having discussion about the status of SUdra in hinduism. I just came across a web page which is about the social history of medieval Europe. The conditions of their farmers is described in detail therein. I give below an extract which seemed very relevant to our study of SUdras in Hindu society. The full page may be seen at:

The Baldwin Project: The Story of the Middle Ages by Samuel B. Harding
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The houses themselves were often little better than wooden huts thatched with straw or rushes, though sometimes they were of stone. Even at the best they were dark, dingy, and unhealthful. Chimneys were just beginning to be used in the Middle Ages for the castles of the great lords; but in the peasants' houses the smoke was usually allowed to escape through the doorway. The door was often made so that the upper half could be left open for this purpose, while the lower half was closed. The cattle were usually housed under the same roof with the peasant's family; and in some parts of Europe this practice is still followed.

Within the houses we should not find very much furniture. Here is a list of the things which one family owned in the year 1345:
2 feather beds, 15 linen sheets, and 4 striped yellow counterpanes.
1 hand-mill for grinding meal, a pestle and mortar for pounding grain, 2 grain chests, a kneading trough, and 2 ovens over which coals could be heaped for baking.
2 iron tripods on which to hang kettles over the fire; 2 metal pots and 1 large kettle.
1 metal bowl, 2 brass water jugs, 4 bottles, a copper box, a tin washtub, a metal warming-pan, 2 large chests, a box, a cupboard, 4 tables on trestles, a large table, and a bench.
2 axes, 4 lances, a crossbow, a scythe, and some other tools.

The food and clothing of the peasant were coarse and simple, but were usually sufficient for his needs. At times, however, war or a succession of bad seasons would bring famine upon a district. Then the suffering would be terrible; for there were no provisions saved up, and the roads were so bad and communication so difficult that it was hard to bring supplies from other regions where there was plenty. At such times, the peasants suffered most. They were forced to eat roots, herbs, and the bark of trees; and often they died by hundreds for want of even such food.

Thus you will see that the lot of the peasant was a hard one; and it was often made still harder by the cruel contempt which the nobles felt for those whom they looked upon as "base-born." The name "villains" was given (to) the peasants because they lived in villages; but the nobles have handed down the name as a term of reproach. In a poem, which was written to please the nobles no doubt, the writer scolds at the villain because he was too well fed, and, as he says, "made faces" at the clergy. "Ought he to eat fish?" the poet asks. "Let him eat thistles, briars, thorns, and straw, on Sunday, for fodder; and pea-husks during the week! Let him keep watch all his days, and have trouble. Thus ought villains to live. Ought he to eat meats? He ought to go naked [158] on all fours, and crop herbs with the horned cattle in the fields!"

Of course there were many lords who did not feel this way towards their peasants. Ordinarily the peasant was not nearly so badly off as the slave in the Greek and Roman days; and often, perhaps, he was as well off as many of the peasants of Europe to-day. But there was this difference between his position and that of the peasant now. Many of them could not leave their lord's manors and move elsewhere without their lord's permission. If they did so, their lord could pursue them and bring them back; but if they succeeded in getting to a free town, and dwelt there for a year and a day without being re-captured, then they became freed from their lord, and might dwell where they wished.
 
Dear Shri Sangom,

I thank you very much for the above posts. Reg the anomalies in PS, i was not meaning to be accurate or detailed - was just curious abt how and why sri kameswara iyer cud base his 'spring out of' (not-belonging-to) stance of “ajaayata” for a varna.

If one were to start questioning anomalies in the entire hymn, then i suppose it wud run into pages. Thank you for the link to sri kameswara iyer's writing. I have downloaded it and will read it soon.

Reg the indo-iranian 3-fold society and the idea that they encountered the 'shudra' northwestern indians, i too think it is very highly probable (sindh was supposedly ruled by 'shudras').

In all probablity, shudra was merely the name of a tribe / kingdom / a region, which was not welcoming of the indo-iranians. They were not yet slaves in the vedic, late-vedic, mahabharat and pre-dharmashastra periods. There were also 'shudra' kings (dasyu kings like sudasa, trasdasyu in the rigveda and those like paijavan in the mahabharat). There were 'shudra' soldiers accompanying the ashvamedha horse in mahabharat and so on.

However it is noteworthy that the so-called 'shudras' were already 'vedic' during the vedic period. In this regard, am in favor of the theory of an earlier indo-aryan split that wud have happened before the aryan-zorashtrian split: American Institute of Vedic Studies - Vedic Origins of the Europeans: the Children of Danu Seems like a family feud, with war mongering fathers and squabbling sons calling each other names.

Based on philological and archeological evidence, Staal confirms that the rigveda was composed to the west of the IVC. The yajur was composed in regions around kuru proper. The atharvan's place of origin remains obscure (some say it rose independetly of rig, and yajur and parts of it are older than the rig. Am sort of waiting in hope that the language of the BMAC, which incidentally is considered non-IE, might provide clues).

The frequent skirmishes and war mongering between the indo-aryans of various regions, got described in the vedas. Each described the other as non-arya or even as demons (or perhaps evil spirits). This regular confrontation is what we see in the "vedic period". Imo, it was merely major and minor confrontations between the "regions of the rig-veda" and "regions of the yajur veda".

So who were the earliest shudras (during the late vedic period ??)...

Please have a look at the Sudra kingdom here: http://upload.wikimedia.org/wikipedia/commons/e/e4/EpicIndia.jpg

In the sabha parva chapter 31 of the mahabharat Sudra and Abhira are described as tribes residing on the banks of Saraswati (very close neighbours). Alternatively in the same Chapter 2, the Abhiras are also called Shudrabhira as a single word as people residing on the banks of saraswati where the river ends:

gaNAnutsava sa~NketAnvyajayatpuruSharShabha .
sindhukUlAshritA ye cha grAmaNeyA mahAbalAH .. 8..\\
shUdrAbhIra gaNAshchaiva ye chAshritya sarasvatIm .
vartayanti cha ye matsyairye cha parvatavAsinaH .. 9..\\

Vishnu Purana also calls Abhiras as Shudras dwelling on the banks of Narmada (VP.4.24.66). The Kishkinda Kanda of the Ramayana also uses the single term "sudrabhira" for a country or region. Patanjali bhasya describes the abhiras as shudras whose duty lay in rearing cattle (Shudrabira go bali bardhanau). Please read more about the abhiras here (p.192-193).

To me, it is clear that the abhiras were the early shudras. Cud it be likely that the dharmashastras refer to these very people as the enslaved shudras? Or perhaps the ones defeated and enslaved at the end of the vedic period were shudras (referred to as such based on their region of origin)?

If the Abhiras were Shudras, it wud mean that the hordes of the vedic Indra(s) (asuras) were in frequent confrontation with the combine of Yadu (sura) allies. It is apparent that during the vedic period, Indra (asuras) and his men won. At the end of the Vedic period (vedanta period), the Yadus won in the Mahabharat war (for this scenario to exist, the mahabharat should have happened after the vedic period not before).

The Shanti parva of mahabharat allows the shudras to accumulate money for religious purposes. They were eligible for yagya and to give alms. These were not deprived from them though put in the servile category.

And today, we have a mixed culture on our hands. In terms of ethnicity, both (those of kuru proper and those to the west of IVC) were indo-aryan. The dharma shastras ofcourse appeared later. By this time, imo, everyone ‘non-vedic’ was put in the shudra category, including the yavana greeks, sakas and mleccha tribes like chinese kushans, etc. This wud mean that the aryan culture spread from east into the west...

Today, the abhiras claim to be Yaduvanshi. The only connection the Abhiras have with the Yadavs is that they stole the yadava women (after the war) when Arjuna was trying to move them from Dwaraka to Indraprastha (Mbh 16.7, 16.8).

All Yadava men died in the Mahabharat war. So how come we now 100s of communities all over india claiming to be Yaduvanshis. Imo, this whole lunar dynasty genealogy is a hoax (for that matter, so is the claim of suryavansh, agnivansh and whatever vansh - all are "created" products of the puranic period imo). The puranic period, imo, played a complex role when the victors (at each epoch) got to portray history as they wanted it to be.

Wrt to DNA tests, we wud need to depend on the introduction of powerful new markers in the market, better detection methods and improvised statistical methods; and wait for the future patiently to unravel things.

Wrt to your last post, i do not think the life of a peasant was any diff from the life of a brahmana. I suppose only the nobility and the so-called 'military-type-brahmins' sought and manipulated power.
 
Dear Shri Sangom,

Reg the indo-iranian 3-fold society and the idea that they encountered the 'shudra' northwestern indians, i too think it is very highly probable (sindh was supposedly ruled by 'shudras').

In all probablity, shudra was merely the name of a tribe / kingdom / a region, which was not welcoming of the indo-iranians. They were not yet slaves in the vedic, late-vedic, mahabharat and pre-dharmashastra periods. There were also 'shudra' kings (dasyu kings like sudasa, trasdasyu in the rigveda and those like paijavan in the mahabharat). There were 'shudra' soldiers accompanying the ashvamedha horse in mahabharat and so on.

However it is noteworthy that the so-called 'shudras' were already 'vedic' during the vedic period. In this regard, am in favor of the theory of an earlier indo-aryan split that wud have happened before the aryan-zorashtrian split: American Institute of Vedic Studies - Vedic Origins of the Europeans: the Children of Danu Seems like a family feud, with war mongering fathers and squabbling sons calling each other names.

Based on philological and archeological evidence, Staal confirms that the rigveda was composed to the west of the IVC. The yajur was composed in regions around kuru proper. The atharvan's place of origin remains obscure (some say it rose independetly of rig, and yajur and parts of it are older than the rig. Am sort of waiting in hope that the language of the BMAC, which incidentally is considered non-IE, might provide clues).

The frequent skirmishes and war mongering between the indo-aryans of various regions, got described in the vedas. Each described the other as non-arya or even as demons (or perhaps evil spirits). This regular confrontation is what we see in the "vedic period". Imo, it was merely major and minor confrontations between the "regions of the rig-veda" and "regions of the yajur veda".

So who were the earliest shudras (during the late vedic period ??)...

Please have a look at the Sudra kingdom here: http://upload.wikimedia.org/wikipedia/commons/e/e4/EpicIndia.jpg

In the sabha parva chapter 31 of the mahabharat Sudra and Abhira are described as tribes residing on the banks of Saraswati (very close neighbours). Alternatively in the same Chapter 2, the Abhiras are also called Shudrabhira as a single word as people residing on the banks of saraswati where the river ends:

gaNAnutsava sa~NketAnvyajayatpuruSharShabha .
sindhukUlAshritA ye cha grAmaNeyA mahAbalAH .. 8..\\
shUdrAbhIra gaNAshchaiva ye chAshritya sarasvatIm .
vartayanti cha ye matsyairye cha parvatavAsinaH .. 9..\\

Vishnu Purana also calls Abhiras as Shudras dwelling on the banks of Narmada (VP.4.24.66). The Kishkinda Kanda of the Ramayana also uses the single term "sudrabhira" for a country or region. Patanjali bhasya describes the abhiras as shudras whose duty lay in rearing cattle (Shudrabira go bali bardhanau). Please read more about the abhiras here (p.192-193).

To me, it is clear that the abhiras were the early shudras. Cud it be likely that the dharmashastras refer to these very people as the enslaved shudras? Or perhaps the ones defeated and enslaved at the end of the vedic period were shudras (referred to as such based on their region of origin)?

If the Abhiras were Shudras, it wud mean that the hordes of the vedic Indra(s) (asuras) were in frequent confrontation with the combine of Yadu (sura) allies. It is apparent that during the vedic period, Indra (asuras) and his men won. At the end of the Vedic period (vedanta period), the Yadus won in the Mahabharat war (for this scenario to exist, the mahabharat should have happened after the vedic period not before).

The Shanti parva of mahabharat allows the shudras to accumulate money for religious purposes. They were eligible for yagya and to give alms. These were not deprived from them though put in the servile category.

And today, we have a mixed culture on our hands. In terms of ethnicity, both (those of kuru proper and those to the west of IVC) were indo-aryan. The dharma shastras ofcourse appeared later. By this time, imo, everyone ‘non-vedic’ was put in the shudra category, including the yavana greeks, sakas and mleccha tribes like chinese kushans, etc. This wud mean that the aryan culture spread from east into the west...

Today, the abhiras claim to be Yaduvanshi. The only connection the Abhiras have with the Yadavs is that they stole the yadava women (after the war) when Arjuna was trying to move them from Dwaraka to Indraprastha (Mbh 16.7, 16.8).

All Yadava men died in the Mahabharat war. So how come we now 100s of communities all over india claiming to be Yaduvanshis. Imo, this whole lunar dynasty genealogy is a hoax (for that matter, so is the claim of suryavansh, agnivansh and whatever vansh - all are "created" products of the puranic period imo). The puranic period, imo, played a complex role when the victors (at each epoch) got to portray history as they wanted it to be.

Wrt to DNA tests, we wud need to depend on the introduction of powerful new markers in the market, better detection methods and improvised statistical methods; and wait for the future patiently to unravel things.

Wrt to your last post, i do not think the life of a peasant was any diff from the life of a brahmana. I suppose only the nobility and the so-called 'military-type-brahmins' sought and manipulated power.

I do agree that migrations from the very beginnings of history
could have happened anywhere, and in that way also out of or into the NW of the Indian subcontinent through present day
Afghanistan, Pakistan etc. But we have no clear evidence of
such historical events being mentioned either in the RigvEda
or in the zend avesta. The mirror image-like position of the
dEvas and asuras in the scriptures of the two groups gives us
an overwhelming impression that what we find in these two
sets of scriptures is due to a recent split. The reference to the
vEdic Gods mitRa and varuNa as asuras (RV 5.63.3) is
possibly a vestige of the pre-split days when varuNa and
mitRa were considered to be asuras.

The atHarva vEda is considered to have been compiled in the
present Kasi/Benares area based on certain internal
evidences, but I could not lay my hands on the relevant
material.

As I explained in another of my posts in the thread relating to
Aryan Migration, there are scholars (many of whom surfaced
during the BJP rule at the centre) who go on harping that the
entire Aryan (Indo-European) civilization, the languages
under that umbrella, etc., originated on the banks of the
Ganges and spread westwards and reached up to the British
isles in due course of time. But they overlook the fact that
there is a sudden change in the Sanskrit language as also
their Gods and demons, as soon as the westward-looking
Aryans crossed the Afghan border and are unable to explain
this. Again we do not find such close similarity between the
scriptures of any two IE language groups preserved to date, as
we find in avesta and RigvEda. There are a host of other valid
reasons which make me subscribe to the group opposing the
Out of India Theory (OIT). David Frawley belongs to the OIT
group and his interpretations will naturally be not unbiased.
He, like other OIT exponents, will shut his eyes to
inconvenient facts and rely on purANic evidences as far as
possible.

Now purANas are at least a millennium later, if not more,
than the RigvEda and so no scholarly work would base its
opinions about the socio-cultural scene of the RigvEdic times
on what is contained in the M Bh. I could not find any
reference to Sudra or Abhira in the web page you have cited.
However you will find two slokas which are of interest to us.
The first one is stanza 10 which is as under:

10 saha sarvais tathā mlecchaiḥ sāgarānūpavāsibhiḥ
pārvatīyāś ca rājāno rājā caiva bṛhadbalaḥ

We see that all the kings who dwell in the seas (across the
ocean) are classified as mLEcHa.

Stanza12:

12 draviḍāḥ siṃhalāś caiva rājā kāśmīrakas tathā
kuntibhojo mahātejāḥ suhmaś ca sumahābalaḥ

We find a reference to draviDa and simhaLa here. Whether
the draviDa kings were of the Aryan fold is not known. If we
assume that they were, it will mean that South India was
under the vEdic religion even as early as the Mahabharata,
which was coeval with the start of Kaliyuga, as per purANic
lore, i.e., 5000 years ago. Whether the sangam Tamil
literature will bear this out, I don't know. If we say no, the
draviDa kingdom was of draviDian culture then we have a
curious phenomenon on our hands. As per OIT and Frawley,
etc., the vedic people who spread all the way up to the end of
western Europe, did not/could not go upto the draviDa country
lying just south of their starting point near the Ganga!

If, therefore, we take the statements contained in the M. Bh.
to unravel who were the original SUdras, we will be trying to
look at what happened some 1000 or 1500 years before the M.
Bh. through its slOkas and that will only lead us to erroneous
conclusions. We will then have to concede that the PS was
interpolated into the RV after the time of M.Bh. This will be
highly improbable in view of the fact that there are
'anukRamaNis' which are supposed to be of the late vEdic
period. So, IMO, we should not consider the puraNa evidence
at all to decide a matter such as this.

We cannot therefore say that there was no atrocity against the
SUdras till the ManusmR^ti days (200 B.C.E. - 200 C.E.). Such
a view will compel us to say that wherever remarks against
the SUdra are found (like in SatapatHa bRahmaNa) those are
all skilful interpolations of a very recent date.

Again see M. Bh. 3.130 says:

03,130.003a eṣā sarasvatī puṇyā divyā coghavatī nadī
03,130.003c etad vinaśanaṃ nāma sarasvatyā viśāṃ pate
03,130.004a dvāraṃ niṣādarāṣṭrasya yeṣāṃ dveṣāt sarasvatī
03,130.004b*0635_01 kṣīṇapāpā śubhāṃl lokān prāpnute
nātra saṃśayaḥ
03,130.004c praviṣṭā pṛthivīṃ vīra mā niṣādā hi māṃ viduḥ
03,130.005a eṣa vai camasodbhedo yatra dṛśyā sarasvatī
03,130.005c yatrainām abhyavartanta divyāḥ puṇyāḥ
samudragāḥ

It would seem that the river sarasvati disappeared so that
nishAdAs do not see her. If we take the straight meaning,
nishAdAs were so unacceptable. Hence to depend on M. Bh. for
support is very tricky. Same will apply to other purANas.

I, therefore, feel (and it is just a hunch) that the tripartisan
rebel group of avestan Indo-Iranians during their journey
through the North-west into the Sarasvati basin, must have
considered unfriendly groups or tribes such as dAsa, dasyu,
etc., as their enemies and those who were not unfriendly or
were subjugated, as SUdras. As time passed, and the open
hostility gave way to some sort of peaceful co-existence with
the originally inimical groups/tribes, they must have been
allowed SUdra status but with some give and take with those
particular groups, which gets reflected now as though the
SUdras as a whole, had a better treatment than what
happened afterwards and that they were allowed some amount
of social intercourse with the three classes.

This underwent a great change after the vEdic religion
declined in importance because buddhism flourished by
attracting into its fold the vaiSyas and Sudras in the main.
When Pushyamitra Sunga usurped the throne after killing the
last Mauryan king, he being a sAmavEdi brahmin, wanted to
reestablish the vEdic religion. The priests then wrote
Manusmriti and other Dharma Sastras and started going with
a vengeance against the vaiSyas and Sudras as a whole. Most
of the people in the agricultural sector, who were earlier
considered vaiSyas, were lowered to the SUdra status as
punishment for their embracing Buddhism.

The above will summarise the history of SUdras in the caste
structure. I suppose whatever the historical past might have
been, in the more recent past, things were not at all good, and
our merely talking about some past which might have been
comparatively better (in order to assuage our conscience,
possibly), will not serve any purpose now to mollify the hurt
nurtured by the SUdras.

Regarding the epic map, I have one observation. The term
"piSAcha" refers to a tribe. People used the dialect "paiSAchi"
which had no script of its own. I don't know whether there are
any speakers now left. At the time of partition some of these
people, who were in Sindh, came and settled down in Mumbai.
One of the MLAs in the Maharashtra during the 80's or so was
reportedly from this tribe. unfortunately I am not able to
recollect the name now. Incidentally the original of katHA
sarit sagara was written in paiSAchi language as br^had
katHA.
 
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