Let me try to answer. The vedas themselves would have been composed at the time gayathri mantra was discovered and so a practice like sandhyavandanam itself would have come into existence after this.
I read that Vedas werent composed. They were only documented and its knowledge was passed.
Maha Periyavar says it even existed even before Gods came into existence. Or simply put its the collective consiousness.
Mantras like Gayatri are eternal and are part of Vedic knowledge. Rishis are only drushtas who perceive or grasp the mantra when it goes out of use through yugas. So a mantra drushta is not the one who is the author of the mantra. And so Gayatr existed before your friend Vishu. LOL.
Vedas are apaurusheya and existed even before the birth of Brahma. Vedas by their very nature and as the very word in Sanskrit suggests are knowledge. And knowledge as the word suggests can not have a root which is researchable.
Renukaji your question answered.
Another possible argument:
Gayatri chandasaam mAtA. -- This is a well known saying.
So Gayatri was the first syntactic presentation of ideas across by one human being to another human being. And so it must be as old as the human civilization itself. That means the begining of the srushti.
Renukaji your question answered for a second time.
It is supposed to have salutary effects on all of body, mind and soul. Kindly share your knowledge about this mantra.
Everyone can here can give his/ her own explanation of the Gayathri Mantra based on their own reading from various sources but best explanation and its effect can only be given be a person who has done at least 1 complete puraschara of Gayathri Mantra ( i.,e chanting it for 24 lakh times ) . I have not done that and I doubt how many people here have done that .If anyone here has done that then I first offer my respects to that person .
Dear Vaagmi ji,
I have one more doubt to be cleared...We all know Gayatri Chandah has 24 syllables...but during normal Japa for Gayatri mantra the Nicruth Gayatri Chandah is employed where its actually only 23 syllables becos the word Varenyam is pronounced in a 3 syllable fashion va-rE-Nyam for regular Japa.
But for Gayatri Argyam the Varenyam is pronouced as 4 syallable va-rE-NI-yam therefore making the whole mantra 24 syllable.
I would like to know why a difference in pronunciation is employed in these 2 different situations and also are there any adverse effects if one is not aware of this difference while performing Japa or Argyam?
Kindly furnish me with some details.
1. sAma vedins chant the Surya gAyatri by stressing the consonant ni while offering prAyaschitta argyam. Sama veda is about hymns and music. So they, perhaps, follow that rule. Yajur vedins and Rig vedins do not stress the consonant. This is what I recollect from what I learnt.
2. While giving the prAyaschittargyam many variations are followed. While some chant just the Surya Gayatri alone and give one argyam in prayaschittam after appropriate sankalpam, there are some (irrespective of vedic denomination) who chant a "Dheerga Gayatri" by adding the vyahritis before and after the gayatri proper. There is no uniformity in this.
3. Knowledgeable members may clarify further.
Dear Vaagmi Ji and TKS ji,
Thank you for the replies...but what is the reason why there is this 23 and 24 situations?
Why the difference?
I know there is 23 syllable recitations for some situations and 24 for other situations.
But why? What is the reasons/logic/rationale behind this?
I have been searching for the answer and can not seem to find.
Sanskrit spoken language, chanting etc came first before the rules codified the language.
In the case of language Panini was able to reconcile the spoken language into a cogent manner as to how words are derived. However, many of the Vedic passages do not meet the Panini grammar fully because spoken language existed that could not be codified
Similarly, the chanting included both versions. A rule (Smrithi) resolved as to how they will be applied in what situations and that came later.
Sandhyavandanam as a ritual was put forth by someone which includes Mantra and some Tantric actions. In the end the only thing that matters is the usefulness of what is present here now.
In the end the meanings do not change. It is simply resolving traditions so that there is no ambiguity going forward.
There are no other reasons or logic from what I know.
Dear TKS ji,
You had mentioned earlier in another post that Gayatri Chandah is employed for Homas.
But Nicruth Gayatri Chandah is employed in Ganapathi Homa where Ganapathi Athrava Seersham is recited and it has Nirchruth Gayatri for its Ganapathi Gayatri as evidenced by :
Ganaka Rishi:,Nichruth Gaayathree Chandha:, Ganapathir Dhevathaa, Om Gam Ganapathaye Namah.
Eka Dhanthaaya Vidhmahe Vakra Thundaaya Dheemahi Thanno Dhanthi Prachodhayaath.
So its kind of still unsettled as why there are some exceptions to the rules..I am pretty sure we are missing out something here.
I do hope to find answers soon...I know all these are Pre Paninian..so not looking for a Paninian answer.
You seem to have an Ad Blocker on.
We depend on advertising to keep our content free for you. Please consider whitelisting us in your ad blocker so that we can continue to provide the content you have come here to enjoy.
Alternatively, consider upgrading your account to enjoy an ad-free experience along with numerous other benefits. To upgrade your account, please visit the account upgrades page
You can also donate financially if you can. Please Click Here on how you can do that.